1. How are Hume, Kant, and Bourdieu different in their thinking about taste? (You might choose to focus on two rather than all three.) Whom do you tend to agree with more, and why? What examples might help support your preference?<\/p>\n
When comparing all three sociologists (per say) their views all relate to each other one way or another. Kant and Hume have similar ideas of what taste means in contrast with Bourdieu. Hume, specifically, says, “Strong sense, united to delicate sentiment, improved by practice, perfected by comparison and cleared of all prejudice, can alone entitle critics to this valuable character; and the joint verdict of such, wherever they are to be found, is the true standard of taste and beauty.” (p.80) Humes view is “survival of the fittest” (p.80) while Bourdieu believes that “taste is always interested.” That “taste” is social. He believes that it all depends on the materialistic things that a person likes. For example, a tv show, a movie, or a book. \u00a0It is about what a person likes and the people around them.<\/p>\n
I agree with Bourdieu because like all teenage girls, we judge. We have judgements of other people, of food, movies, clothes, tv shows, etc. And for most girls, their preferences are based off of their friends preferences. It’s a social thing. If girls don’t like something, they make it known, they voice their opinion. So they are basing their taste and judgements off of the things that they do not like. Bourdieu says, “…taste is always interested–in fact, self-interested–and those interests are social.” (p.86)\u00a0Everything revolves around the society’s opinion.<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"
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